(This question is submitted by Sarah MN - a paraphrase) "I was telling the story of the woman caught in adultery to a friend of mine, and I wondered why under Moses's law, this woman would have been killed. Where was God's love? Why did Jesus not condemn her, but his own law (God's law) did? Why does God seem so different in the Old Testament than in the New Testament?"
Has anyone ever had a Muslim friend bring up these verses in John to say that Jesus was talking about Mohammed when he talks about the "helper"? My friend R brought just verse 7 of John 16 up a while back and insisted that it was talking about Mohammed. We had a really good conversation and I found out that he has been talking with friends of his about our conversations. A friend who is more religious than he is told him to bring this verse up with me. How would/have you responded to the assertion that John 16:7 is talking about Mohammed? (I'll share how I responded in a few days)